Name: 
 

Practice Final Sem 2



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

A tall plant is crossed with a short plant. If the tall F1 pea plants are allowed to self-pollinate,
a.
the offspring will be of medium height.
b.
all of the offspring will be tall.
c.
all of the offspring will be short.
d.
some of the offspring will be tall, and some will be short.
 

 2. 

In the P generation, a tall plant was crossed with a short plant. If alleles did not segregate during gamete formation,
a.
all of the F1 plants would be short.
b.
some of the F1 plants would be tall and some would be short.
c.
all of the F2 would be short.
d.
all of the F2 plants would be tall.
 

 3. 

A Punnett square shows all of the following EXCEPT
a.
all possible results of a genetic cross.
b.
the genotypes of the offspring.
c.
the alleles in the gametes of each parent.
d.
the actual results of a genetic cross.
 
 
RrYy
  

RY

Ry

rY

ry
 
 

RY

RRYY

RRYy

RrYY

RrYy
Seed Shape
R =
Round
r =
Wrinkled


RrYy

Ry

RRYy

RRyy

RrYy

Rryy


Seed Color
Y =
Yellow
y = Green

rY

RrYY

RrYy

rrYY

rrYy
 

ry

RrYy

Rryy

rrYy

rryy
 

Figure 11–2
 

 4. 

The Punnett square in Figure 11–2 shows that the gene for pea shape and the gene for pea color
a.
assort independently.
c.
have the same alleles.
b.
are linked.
d.
are always homozygous.
 
 
nar002-1.jpg

Figure 11–3
 

 5. 

What is shown in Figure 11–3?
a.
independent assortment
c.
crossing-over
b.
anaphase I of meiosis
d.
replication
 

 6. 

Which of the following assort independently?
a.
chromosomes
c.
multiple alleles
b.
genes on the same chromosome
d.
codominant alleles
 

 7. 

What would Hershey and Chase have concluded if both radioactive 32P and 35S were found in the bacteria in their experiment?
a.
The virus’s protein coat was not injected into the bacteria.
b.
The virus’s DNA was not injected into the bacteria.
c.
Genes are made of protein.
d.
Both the virus’s protein coat and its DNA were injected into the bacteria.
 
 
nar003-1.jpg

Figure 12–1
 

 8. 

Figure 12–1 shows the structure of a(an)
a.
DNA molecule.
c.
RNA molecule.
b.
amino acid.
d.
protein.
 

 9. 

During mitosis, the
a.
DNA molecules unwind.
b.
histones and DNA molecules separate.
c.
DNA polymerase makes copies of DNA strands. 
d.
nucleosomes become more tightly packed.
 

 10. 

Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA?
a.
ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine
b.
deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine
c.
phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine
d.
phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine
 

 11. 

What is produced during transcription?
a.
RNA molecules
c.
RNA polymerase
b.
DNA molecules
d.
proteins
 

 12. 

How many bases are needed to specify three amino acids?
a.
3
c.
9
b.
6
d.
12
 

 13. 

Which of the following is NEVER a frameshift mutation?
a.
substitution
c.
deletion
b.
insertion
d.
point mutation
 

 14. 

In E. coli, the lac operon controls the
a.
breakdown of lactose.
c.
breakdown of glucose.
b.
production of lactose.
d.
production of glucose.
 

 15. 

A lac repressor turns off the lac genes by
a.
binding to the promoter.
c.
binding to the operator.
b.
DNA polymerase.
d.
binding to the lac genes.
 

 16. 

Which of the following have been produced by selective breeding?
a.
horse breeds
c.
dog breeds
b.
cat breeds
d.
all of the above
 

 17. 

Which of the following is NOT an example of selective breeding?
a.
allowing only the best milk-producing cows to reproduce
b.
crossing disease-resistant plants with plants that produce high food yields
c.
mating cats that have long hair with cats that have long tails
d.
allowing dogs to mate only once a year
 

 18. 

What is the ultimate source of genetic variability?
a.
inbreeding
c.
hybridization
b.
radiation
d.
mutations
 

 19. 

Breeders induce mutations in organisms to
a.
increase diversity in populations.
b.
make organisms more alike.
c.
avoid selective breeding.
d.
produce organisms with undesirable characteristics.
 

 20. 

Mutations are useful in selective breeding because they
a.
help maintain the desired characteristics of animal breeds.
b.
are usually found in hybrids.
c.
are usually beneficial.
d.
are occasionally beneficial. 
 

 21. 

During transformation,
a.
a prokaryote is changed into a eukaryote.
b.
a cell takes in DNA from outside the cell.
c.
foreign DNA is inserted into a plasmid.
d.
a cell is mutated.
 

 22. 

A recombinant plasmid gets inside a bacterial cell by
a.
inducing mutations.
c.
transformation.
b.
injecting itself into the cell.
d.
recombining with the cell.
 

 23. 

Which of the following is often used as a genetic marker?
a.
a foreign gene
b.
a gene for antibiotic resistance
c.
a DNA sequence that serves as a bacterial origin of replication
d.
a nucleotide labeled with a fluorescent dye
 

 24. 

Suppose a bacterial culture were mixed with recombinant plasmids containing a gene for resistance to penicillin. The bacterial culture was then treated with penicillin. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a.
Those bacteria that contain the plasmid will survive.
b.
The penicillin will kill the bacteria that were transformed.
c.
The gene for antibiotic resistance is expressed in the bacteria that survive.
d.
Those bacteria that are successfully transformed will survive.
 

 25. 

Which of the following can be observed in a karyotype?
a.
a change in a DNA base
c.
genes
b.
an extra chromosome
d.
alleles
 

 26. 

What is the approximate probability that a human offspring will be female?
a.
10%
c.
50%
b.
25%
d.
75%
 

 27. 

A human female inherits
a.
two copies of every gene located on the X chromosome.
b.
twice as many sex chromosomes as a human male inherits.
c.
one copy of every gene located on the Y chromosome.
d.
all of the same genes that a human male inherits.
 

 28. 

A pedigree can be used to
a.
determine whether a trait is inherited.
b.
show how a trait is passed from one generation to the next.
c.
determine whether an allele is dominant or recessive.
d.
all of the above
 

 29. 

Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a.
A person with Huntington disease might not pass the allele for the disease to his or her offspring.
b.
A person with Huntington disease might be homozygous for the disease.
c.
Huntington disease is caused by a recessive allele.
d.
A person who inherits one allele for Huntington disease will develop the disease.
 

 30. 

Compared with normal hemoglobin, the hemoglobin of a person with sickle cell disease
a.
is longer.
b.
is shorter.
c.
has a different sequence of amino acids.
d.
is wider.
 

 31. 

Because the X chromosome contains genes that are vital for normal development, no baby has been born
a.
with one X chromosome.
c.
without an X chromosome.
b.
with three X chromosomes.
d.
with four X chromosomes.
 

 32. 

What conclusion CANNOT be made from two DNA fingerprints that show identical patterns of bands?
a.
The DNA from the two DNA fingerprints almost certainly came from the same person.
b.
The DNA from the two DNA fingerprints definitely came from two different people.
c.
The DNA from the two DNA fingerprints was separated by size.
d.
The DNA repeats that formed the bands in each DNA fingerprint are the same length.
 

 33. 

The human genome was sequenced
a.
by sequencing each gene on each chromosome, one at a time.
b.
using DNA fingerprinting.
c.
by using computers to find overlapping regions between sequenced DNA fragments.
d.
using CFTR.
 

 34. 

A group of similar cells that perform a single function is called a(an)
a.
nerve.
c.
tissue.
b.
organ.
d.
organ system.
 

 35. 

The process by which organ systems maintain relatively constant internal conditions is called
a.
circulation.
c.
homeostasis.
b.
organization.
d.
teamwork.
 

 36. 

Which process enables the body to maintain a stable temperature?
a.
heating
c.
feedback inhibition
b.
circulation
d.
cellular activity
 

 37. 

The level of chemicals in the body that speed up cellular activity is regulated by
a.
action potential.
c.
the sympathetic nervous system.
b.
feedback inhibition.
d.
the parasympathetic nervous system.
 

 38. 

Cells that transmit electrical signals through the nervous system to various organs in the body are called
a.
nerves.
c.
organelles.
b.
neurons.
d.
tissues.
 

 39. 

What begins when a neuron is stimulated by another neuron or by the environment?
a.
a threshold
c.
an impulse
b.
an action potential
d.
a dendrite
 

 40. 

When an impulse reaches the end of a neuron, it triggers the release of
a.
neurotransmitters.
c.
dendrites.
b.
sodium ions.
d.
receptors.
 

 41. 

Sense organs are part of the
a.
peripheral nervous system.
c.
autonomic nervous system.
b.
central nervous system.
d.
parasympathetic nervous system.
 

 42. 

Which of the following general categories of sensory receptors are located everywhere in the body except the brain?
a.
thermoreceptors
c.
photoreceptors
b.
mechanoreceptors
d.
pain receptors
 

 43. 

If you did not like the flavor of a certain oral liquid medicine, you could hide much of its taste by
a.
closing your eyes.
c.
holding your nose.
b.
covering your ears.
d.
folding your hands together.
 

 44. 

Uncontrollable pain and sickness occur because the body cannot produce enough endorphins when a drug user attempts to stop using
a.
opiates.
c.
crack.
b.
cocaine.
d.
marijuana.
 

 45. 

Alcohol does each of the following EXCEPT
a.
slow reflexes.
c.
impair judgment.
b.
stimulate heart rate.
d.
disrupt coordination.
 

 46. 

How many bones are found in an adult human skeleton?
a.
150
c.
206
b.
200
d.
212
 

 47. 

The main function of the skull is to
a.
produce blood cells.
c.
protect the brain.
b.
protect the heart and lungs.
d.
act like a lever for muscle attachment.
 

 48. 

The periosteum is a
a.
place for storing fat cells.
b.
location for red blood cell production.
c.
tough layer of connective tissue surrounding a bone.
d.
latticework structure that adds strength to the bone.
 

 49. 

If a bone is broken, which of the following produces new bone tissue to heal the break?
a.
marrow
c.
osteoblasts
b.
Haversian canals
d.
leukocytes
 
 
nar004-1.jpg

Figure 36–1
 

 50. 

Saddle joints are represented in which diagram in Figure 36–1?
a.
Diagram A
c.
Diagram C
b.
Diagram B
d.
Diagram D
 

 51. 

Ligaments connect
a.
cartilage to bone.
c.
bone to muscle.
b.
muscle to muscle.
d.
bone to bone.
 

 52. 

Which of the following is NOT true about muscle tone?
a.
It is responsible for keeping the back and legs straight when you’re relaxed.
b.
It is increased through regular exercise.
c.
It describes the tightening of some muscles.
d.
It increases with age.
 

 53. 

Which of the following is NOT a function of skin?
a.
helps regulate body temperature
c.
contracts and relaxes muscles
b.
removes body wastes
d.
helps prevent infection
 

 54. 

Which is the correct direction of blood flow?
a.
right atrium ® right ventricle ® pulmonary artery
b.
right atrium ® left atrium ® pulmonary artery
c.
left ventricle ® pulmonary artery ® aorta
d.
left ventricle ® left atrium ® aorta
 

 55. 

In the heart, the mixing of oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood is prevented by the
a.
mitral valve.
c.
septum.
b.
tricuspid valve.
d.
pericardium.
 

 56. 

Which of the following is NOT a type of blood vessel?
a.
artery
c.
lymphatic cell
b.
vein
d.
capillary
 

 57. 

The function of valves in the human circulatory system is to
a.
stimulate the heartbeat.
c.
prevent the backward flow of blood.
b.
accelerate the flow of blood.
d.
serve as a cushion to prevent friction.
 

 58. 

Which of the following is NOT an effect of exercise on veins?
a.
Exercise helps force blood through the veins.
b.
Exercise helps keep blood from accumulating and stretching veins.
c.
Exercise helps keep the walls around veins strong.
d.
Exercise helps increase the size of veins.
 

 59. 

Which of the following is true about blood pressure?
a.
It is not affected by atherosclerosis.
b.
It is lower in veins than in arteries.
c.
It drops a great deal when traveling through arteries.
d.
Diastolic pressure is higher than systolic pressure.
 

 60. 

A blood pressure reading of 120/80
a.
indicates a diastolic blood prssure of 120.
b.
is an indication of hypertension in a resting adult.
c.
indicates a systolic blood pressure of 120.
d.
is determined by using a sphygmomanometer to measure blood pressure in the veins.
 

 61. 

Which blood cells are most numerous in the body?
a.
red
c.
platelets
b.
white
d.
plasma
 

 62. 

Which of the following is correct about the composition of plasma?
a.
It is 90 percent water.
c.
It is 10 percent water.
b.
It is 50 percent water.
d.
It contains no water.
 
 
nar005-1.jpg

Figure 37–1
 

 63. 

In Figure 37–1, what does Step B show?
a.
a clot forming
c.
the clumping of platelets
b.
the capillary wall breaking
d.
the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin
 

 64. 

Which of the following blood cells contain hemoglobin?
a.
red blood cells
c.
platelets
b.
white blood cells
d.
all of the above
 

 65. 

What is the term used to describe a swelling of the tissues due to the accumulation of excess fluid?
a.
hemophilia
c.
edema
b.
stroke
d.
hypertension
 

 66. 

If a person gets food stuck in his or her windpipe, it probably means that
a.
the food entered the mouth incorrectly.
b.
oxygen failed to exchange with carbon dioxide.
c.
the person temporarily lost the ability to produce ATP.
d.
a flap of tissue, the epiglottis, failed to cover the entrance to the trachea when the person swallowed.
 

 67. 

Which of the following is NOT contained in tobacco smoke?
a.
carbon monoxide
c.
nicotine
b.
caffeine
d.
tar
 

 68. 

Which of the following is NOT a step in identifying the pathogen that causes a specific disease?
a.
The pathogen should be found in the body of a healthy organism.
b.
The pathogen should be isolated and grown in a pure culture.
c.
The purified pathogens should cause the same disease in a new host.
d.
The pathogen should be isolated from the second host.
 

 69. 

Which of the following is an example of a vector and the disease it spreads?
a.
tall grass and Lyme disease
c.
the Nile river and West Nile disease
b.
the deer tick and Lyme disease
d.
insecticides and malaria
 

 70. 

The body’s most important nonspecific defense is
a.
the skin.
c.
the inflammatory response.
b.
cell-mediated immunity.
d.
permanent immunity.
 

 71. 

Unlike passive immunity, in active immunity antibodies are produced by
a.
the mother of an infant.
c.
other animals.
b.
your own body.
d.
an autoimmune disease.
 

 72. 

If a person has memory B cells against a certain pathogen, the person is
a.
likely to develop that disease.
b.
much less likely to develop the disease a second time.
c.
able to spread the disease to others through physical contact.
d.
probably still sick with the disease.
 

 73. 

The symptoms of allergies include
a.
runny nose and a fever.
b.
sneezing, runny nose, and watery eyes.
c.
unusual infections of the lungs, mouth, throat, and skin.
d.
formation of a tumor.
 

 74. 

Doctors first suspected that AIDS was weakening the immune system of infected patients when their patients developed
a.
asthma.
c.
rare infections.
b.
allergies.
d.
strep throat.
 

 75. 

HIV spreads through the body by
a.
replicating inside the cells of the immune system.
b.
preventing the body from producing antibodies against HIV.
c.
causing the body to have asthma attacks.
d.
strengthening the immune system.
 



 
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